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@mustaccio I tried your version and also the above mentioned by Gordon but they didn't work. The thing which is different in my query is this... update (select specific record of the table based on some condition) set col1 = val1, col2 = val2; update (select specific record of the table based on some condition) set (col1, col2) = (val1, val2);@Gordon Linoff It really looks awkward. I have no problem in doing this but it looks so mean the way you said. Better to delete the question and start over again.My test query did use the same column names and I couldn't get the query to run properly until I qualifed the outer where clause column.Now, without further ado, the example: Just happened to stumble across this blog while researching another issue and thought I'd throw my slight variation out there:(assuming you have a unique key to join on)UPDATE table1 SETcolumn1 = a.column1,column2 = a.column2,column3 = a.column3FROM table1 JOIN table2 a ON table1. ID I've tried to use your example to update,but I am using fully qualified table name like [database].[schema].[table].[column].
After each exercise, we provide the solution so you can check your answer. But in that case, it sounds like I can skip the where statement for employee IDs. Both execution plans look exactly the same, but your code looks much better. I think that I like your query better since it puts the case statements closer to the columns to be updated. As for the where statement, I should have mentioned that both the #Emplist and #Act Empl tables always have the same records (i.e., the same employee IDs listed). It is just a general principle that when the question is substantially changed, it affects people who have already tried to solve it, either through answers or comments.
If you're doing it programmatically, use parameterized queries and you only ever have to write it once. Hire Date) - 1 end from #Act Empl a inner join Employee e on a. How to bypass the 'Subquery returned more than 1 value' error?